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Is the author saying all the following are prohibited or in dire need of an editor?

6:151

I will recite what your Lord has forbidden you: that you associate not anything with Him, and to be good to your parents, and not to slay your children because of poverty; We will provide you and them and that you approach not any indecency outward or inward, and that you slay not the soul God has forbidden, except by right. That then He has charged you with; haply you will understand.

So: not associating partners to God
being good to your parents
not slaying your children because of poverty
and not slaying souls forbidden by God

Are all prohibited!

I hope no one literally follows this verse. I would encourage ignoring the first sentence and then reading on.

Unfortunately for you eh, it is only you and your blogger friends who are confused over this Quranic verse. No Arabic speaker or Muslim is confused over what God is saying in Arabic.

I suggest you try and address the long list of Biblical verses which confuse you before trying your funny impression of a Quranic scholar:

philosophy-dubai/biblical-confusion-t47353.html

Cheers,
Shafique

Yep.

Cheers,

Shafique

The claim is the Koran is inimitable. If I were to write a better Koran, I would get rid of the double negative in the verse; since it says the exact opposite I suppose God had really intended.

(Doesn't Allah know the verse is saying the exact opposite I suppose he is trying to say?)

Saying "I forbid you from x, y and z" means don't do x, y and z.

x = do not take partners of God
y = do not mistreat your parents
z = do not kill your children out of poverty

So, don't do not take partners of God, don't do not mistreat your parents and don't do not kill your children out of poverty!

Err, so take partners of God, mistreat your parents and kill your children out of poverty, right?

As I said, you should stick to trying to clear up your confusion about the Bible. You're doing a bad job explaining yourself on two forums at the moment!

This particular verse is quite clear to all Muslims and Arabic speakers - and even in the English translation, it is pretty clear what God is saying. Even you aren't really that confused.

Cheers,

Shafique

Sure, Muslims need to interpret the verse non-literally as a literal interpretation would be saying to disrespect your children, take partners of Allah and kill your children out of poverty.

Do you and Allah not know what a double negative is?

Would it really be that difficult to write a better Koranic verse from this?

Thanks for your views on God's grammar - as I said, you and your blogger friends are the only ones confused.

May I suggest, again, that you tackle your confusion over the Bible first though. There it is more than you misunderstanding grammar. You can start with the talking donkeys.

Cheers,
Shafique

Sorry, I didn't see you address how to literally interpret the passage.

Most Muslims follow this verse despite what it says, not because of it.

Am I really to believe no one could write a better verse than this?

I could simply take the verse and edit the double negative out.

Which verse would you interpret literally:

I will recite what your Lord has said: that you associate not anything with Him, and to be good to your parents, and not to slay your children because of poverty; We will provide you and them and that you approach not any indecency outward or inward, and that you slay not the soul God has forbidden, except by right. That then He has charged you with; haply you will understand.

I will recite what your Lord has forbidden you: that you associate not anything with Him, and to be good to your parents, and not to slay your children because of poverty; We will provide you and them and that you approach not any indecency outward or inward, and that you slay not the soul God has forbidden, except by right. That then He has charged you with; haply you will understand.

One verse literally says do not associate others with God the other says to associate others with God.

Take your pick which you should follow literally.

Yes, we're all aware of your personal confusion - we got that from the OP.

I suggested you tackle your list of Biblical confusions before you take up criticising God's Arabic grammar.

Cheers,
Shafique

shafique , I think the question is very clear which do you choose literally. I do not understand you reluctance to answer. I personally have no confusion about bible verses. The bible promotes slavery so it is evil and has no place in a conversation regarding morals.

--- Mar 14, 2014 ---

rayznack ,he will be in a jam if he answers the question because he will expose how its man made..