Jizya - Poll Tax

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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 26, 2010
Been there, bought the t-shirt, lost the t-shirt, bought another t-shirt and hand delivered it to you. :lol:

Yet, you keep saying its not a t-shirt but a polo-neck with the neck and arms cut short! :mrgreen:

I'm glad we agree on the facts though and that you can't produce any expert who disagrees with them (just ones that can cite the later aberrations that we've covered already - in Egypt and India).

I'm happy that we've reached this understanding. It is amusing to see you throw the toys from the cot though! :)

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Shafique

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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 26, 2010
We've had a number of instances where historians and authors quoted by eh-oh have confirmed/clarified that the Jizya is a tax and that the taxes paid by Muslims worked out higher.


Nope - no quotes from 'historians' or 'authors' who stated the above - just your 'calculation' (which was shot down for not even showing where taxes for the poor end and middle class begin).

Do you have any historians you can cite who 'confirmed/clarifed that the Jizya is a tax and that the taxes paid by Muslims worked out higher'?

Or do you concede that you do not have any quotations after all?
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 27, 2010
Oh dear, shafique is NOT going to like the following quote:

Hugh Kennedy, 'The Prophet and the Age of the Caliphates', p 94 -

...a new problem had emerged in the generation since 'Ali had died. Many of the local people, especially in the Kufa area, had been converted to Islam. While this was no doubt welcome in many ways, it did pose serious problems to the rulers. The real question was how far these new converts, usually referred to as mawali (clients of freedmen) of the Arab tribes, should be treated as first-class Muslims. While in theory all should be equal, objections were raised on two fronts. The non-Muslims paid a higher rate of tax on their landed property, the kharaj and a poll-tax on top of that, while the Arab Muslims simply paid the sadaqa. This meant that conversion would result in a substantial loss of income for the government. Naturally converts tended to be denied the fiscal benefits of their conversion and, equally naturally, they resented it.


:(
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 27, 2010
Which particular fact about Jizya are you disputing eh? Land is considered wealth, and any non-Muslim with land would have to pay Zakaat on the land AS WELL as Kharaj (land tax), not just sadqaa - so it appears that Kennedy is mistaken on this point. See below for a full treatment on this point - with some references to other historians too - and note it says the land tax was the same for muslims and nonMuslims - therefore the comparison does come down to Jizya. (Good attempt though, shame you didn't do a bit more research though)

The point is that I have quoted Kennedy speaking about Jizya - where he confirms the facts below - I'll leave it to you to dig out the quote - you managed to find the above quote (which doesn't say how much Jizya was) - so I'll leave it to you to dig out what Kennedy specifically says about Jizya.

The facts are:

1. Jizya is a tax (some argued it was more than this)
2. It is a simple tax, payable by only able bodied and employed men, and is fixed amount per annum.
3. the tax ranges from 12 chickens a year, to 48 chickens a year (or 36g of silver to 144g of silver)
4. The tax is minimal in absolute terms - as poverty was defined as anyone who could not SAVE more than 17 chickens a month (so you the tax was less than 6% of savings - and as it was fixed, the more you earned, the lower the tax burden)
5. Muslims paid taxes which varied with wealth
6. Arnold (and others) have quoted the rates
7. The arithmetic (as well as the conclusions by Arnold et al) all show that the moderate Jizya was less than Muslim taxes (its a mathematical result of the rates and forms of taxation)
8. Some Christian tribes elected to serve in the military and were exempt from Jizya, some Muslims wanted to be exempt from military service and had to pay tax to compensate


However, here is an interesting quote - which you can look up on Google books. Please read, analyse and report back on what it is saying was the cause of the decrease in revenue in the Umayyad period when people converted:

"How were non-Muslims taxed and how did they hope to benefit by accepting Islam? What did 'Umar do in attempting to reconcile the rights of the new Muslims (mawali) with the revenue needs of the
government?...The difficulties arise because the sources rarely supply the detailed and precise information we need, or if they do, the information may relate to only a limited area of the problem or a part
of the Umayyad territories...Even the lengthy and quite detailed so-called 'Fiscal Rescript of 'Umar II' is subject to these remarks. It has generally been accepted as a copy of a document sent by 'Umar to his
governors giving them precise instructions on certain questions concerning taxation and the rights of non-Muslims to accept Islam, but it is clear from the attempt of H. A. R. Gibb to explicate it that it
leaves a number of issues in doubt, and, in spite of the general acceptance of its authenticity, its ascription to 'Umar as a whole can only be impressionistic and open to question. Like almost all of our Umayyad 'documents', it survives only as part of a later literary text - there is no archive and we do not have the document itself, if there was one.

If we take first the question of the taxation of non-Muslims and Muslims in the Umayyad state and the advantages to be hoped for from acceptance of Islam, it would be fairly easy, in theory at any rate, to provide an answer if the classical Muslim fiscal system had existed from the beginning. In this classical system Muslims specifically pay a religious tax, the zakat, which is levied at different rates on different types of poverty and wealth. Non-Muslims specifically pay a poll tax, the jizya, payable on the person of each non-Muslim, both as a sign of their inferior status in the Islamic state and as a return for the protection which this state offers them. Thirdly there is the kharaj. This is a tax payable equally by Muslims and non-Muslims on land which is liable for it, generally land which was conquered and became the property of the Muslim state but which was left under the cultivation of those who had worked it before its conquest, subject to a tax which was to be gathered for the benefit of the Muslims as a whole [but what about for the benefit of non-Muslims?]. When this land changed hands it remained liable for the kharaj, no matter what was the religion of its proprietor. In this system, then, there is likely to be some incentive for the adoption of Islam by the non-Muslims, so long as the financial burden of the zakat was less than that of the jizya, but the amount lost
to the treasury by the conversion of an individual was unlikely to be significant for the finances of the state.

In the Umayya period, though, this system (admittedly more complex in practice) did not yet fully exist, and, largely as a result of the work of D. C. Dennett, it is apparent that we have to speak of fiscal systems rather than of one system covering the whole empire. Nevertheless, Dennett seems to have shown that, in spite of the diversity, there was at the level of the tax payer over most of the empire a dual system of poll tax and land tax, and a reasonably precise terminology to distinguish them. Acceptance of Islam should in theory have brought relief from the poll tax in most areas, but the land tax would continue to be payable so long as the convert remained on his land...Full fiscal benefit would be gained both by conversion and by abandonment of the land, but it was abandonment of the land which was crucial since this freed a man from the land tax and removed him from the clutches of the tax official. It was this abandonment of the land which caused the
problems for the Umayyads in both Egypt and Iraq, and it was against this background that al-Hajjaj's measures against the mawali makes sense. Almost everywhere widespread acceptance of Islam would lead to a decline of revenue, either for the government where it collected taxes directly (as in Iraq and Egypt) or for the local non-Arab rulers and notables charged with levying it and paying the government an agreed amount (as in Khurasan). To prevent this decline in revenue the government or the local notables, as the case may be, either tried to prevent conversion to Islam or took no account of it when collecting taxes...

It would be unwise to attempt to be too specific about 'Umar II's response to this situation. Beyond a general acceptance that there should be no distinction in Islam between Arab and non-Arab and that there should be no obstacles to the acceptance of Islam by non-Arabs, it is difficult to pick out specific measures which we can be sure about.

Some reports say that he forbade the acquisition of tax paying land by the Muslims after the year 100 AH (AD 718-719). This seems to indicate that Muslims did not expect to pay tax on their lands and as more and more tax-paying land passed into Muslim hands, either through its acquisition by Arabs from its previous non-Arab cultivators or by the conversion of its non-Arab cultivators, so the government was deprived of a vital source of taxation. There is a possible allusion to this measure in the 'Fiscal Rescript', but the wording is rather vague and there is no mention of any date. It is reported that in Khurasan a deputation led by the pious Abu 'l-Sayda' complained to 'Umar that the governor al-Jarrah b. 'Abd Allah al-Hakami was imposing circumcision as a test on would-be converts who were flocking to Islam in response to 'Umar's insistence that the mawali should be freed from their kharaj tax and receive proper pay in the army. 'Umar's response was to depose the
governor, forbid the circumcision test while insisting that 'God sent Muhammad to call men to Islam, not as a circumciser', and to demand that the non-Arabs entering Islam should receive equality of treatment with
the Arabs.

But whatever 'Umar did or did not do, it is clear that he did not provide a permanent solution to the problem, for after him we continue to hear of non-Arab Muslims being subjected to what they saw as unrighteous taxation, of consequent discontent and even revolt, and of renewed attempts by individual governors to recognize their rights. The problem seems to have been especially acute in the east where it caused
constant trouble in the territories east of Khurasan, while in Khurasan itself we hear that in 738 thousands of Muslims were still taxed while many non-Muslims were getting off scot free. Dennett argued that the dual system of land tax and poll tax, with remission of poll tax but not necessarily of land tax for those who accepted Islam, should have remedied the grievances of the mawali without injuring the interests of the state. But this works only if it is assumed that the system was respected, and then only in those areas where it operated...When, therefore, as seems to have happened from time to time, an attempt was made to encourage the local population to accept Islam by promising remission of taxes, it was the local rulers and notables who came under pressure because they were the ones responsible for paying the agreed sum to the Arab governor" (78-81).

Hawting, G. R. "The First Dynasty of Islam: The Umayyad Caliphate AD 661-750. New York: Routledge, 2000.
http://books.google.com/books?id=03kB6yjps4IC&pg=PA78&lpg=PA78&dq=%22non%20muslims%22+taxed+less+than+muslims&source=web&ots=UMgoZ3tRAH&sig=RI0g66QDa-vybQuZlSnqeOglBS4#PPA80,M1


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Shafique
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 27, 2010
shafique wrote:so it appears that Kennedy is mistaken on this point.


Translation: Shafique knows it more than highly respected historians.
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 27, 2010
and note it says the land tax was the same for muslims and nonMuslims


Please note which time period Kennedy was talking about:

a new problem had emerged in the generation since 'Ali had died.


When did Ali die and what time period is your article talking about? That should have popped out at you if you actually knew who Umar II was (perhaps you thought it was referring to the first Caliph Umar?)

Now, read what your article says:

Fiscal Rescript of 'Umar II


Umar the second?

Now, read what Wikipedia says of the kharaj tax (perhaps it will also shed some light on this Umar the second character):

Initially, after the first Muslim conquests in the 7th century, kharaj usually denoted a lump-sum duty levied upon the conquered provinces and collected by the officials of the former Byzantine and Sassanid empires or, more broadly, any kind of tax levied by Muslim conquerors on their non-Muslim subjects, dhimmis. At that time, kharaj was synonymous with jizyah, which later emerged as a poll tax paid by dhimmis. Muslims landowners, on the other hand, paid only ushr, a religious tithe, which carried a much lower rate of taxation.[1]

However, the mass conversion of Christians and Zoroastrians to Islam eroded the tax base of the Arab empire. On top of that, a large, but unsuccessful, expedition against the Byzantine Empire undertaken by the Umayyad caliph Sulayman in 717 brought the finances of the Umayyads to the brink of collapse. Even before Sulayman's ascent to power, Al-Hajjaj, a governor of Iraq, attempted to raise revenues by demanding from Muslims a full rate of taxation, but that measure met with opposition and resentment. To address these problems, Sulayman's successor Umar II worked out a compromise that beginning from 719, land from which kharaj was paid could not be transferred to Muslims, who could lease such land, but in that case, they would be required to pay kharaj from it. With the passage of time, the practical result of that reform was that kharaj was levied on most land without regard for the cultivator's religion.


It wasn't until 720 ce (Umar II !!!) that the kharaj tax was equalized between Muslims and non-Muslims - and that article is clear that the tax was equalized because non-Muslims were converting to Islam and the Islamic state was losing revenue. God you are a joke. You pontificate on various subjects, claiming historians are wrong because you've copy/pasted a snippet from a book, and you, to put it diplomatically, don't even have a basic grasp of what you're talking about.

So, to re-cap, for the first ninety years after the Muslim conquests, the taxes non-Muslims paid were indisputably higher than what Muslims paid. After that, the question is unclear - since you have so far not quoted a single historian or author who has said otherwise.
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 27, 2010
Oh dear, you still seem to be missing the point eh (and confusing different eras in early Muslim history). You should remind yourself when the Umayyad dystasty started and when Ali was killed (clue, the book I linked to has some dates in the title).

Ergo, 'the generation after Ali' is exactly the period the book I quoted from covers. Sheesh - you can take a horse to water... ;)

Kennedy's quote does not contradict the facts about Jizya. (If you think it does, which particular fact does Kennedy contradict - he is only mentioning Jizya in passing).

The kharaj, as a land tax, was applicable to both Muslims and Non-Muslims and the loss of revenue from conversion in Kennedy's quote seems to be about a loss in Kharaj - for the poll tax/Jizya is only a moderate amount. The only time in early Muslim history that loss of revenue from conversions was ever an issue is the period I have quoted above (again, if you think differently, provide the quotes/references for this).

You are, once again, extrapolating meanings from selected quotes.

So - the facts about Jizya still stand.

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Shafique
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 27, 2010
(and confusing different eras in early Muslim history)


Unbelievably stupid, this one is.

The generation after Ali was before 720 ce. Unless, for you, a sixty year period is a generation.

Ergo, 'the generation after Ali' is exactly the period the book I quoted from covers. Sheesh - you can take a horse to water...


No, it doesn't. The period your article covers was after 720 ce. Try reading the Wikipedia article one more time and, if you are still confused, forcefully hit your head against the computer and/or desk.

Try the desk. Computers are typically too soft nowadays. You need something really dense. Go outside and practice with the stones you might happen to walk across.

Kennedy's quote does not contradict the facts about Jizya.


Kennedy's quote is clear that non-Muslims were paying more in taxes than non-Muslims.

It was not until Umar II (720 ce - ninety years into the first conquests) that the kharaj tax was equalized for Muslims and non-Muslims because non-Muslims were converting to Islam and the state was losing tax revenue - hence the reason that there was a reform in the first place.

I have quoted a renowned historian who explicitly says this. It is you who has so far been unable to quote a *single* historian or author who says non-Muslims paid fewer taxes than Muslims did.
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 27, 2010
:lol:

I'm impressed with how you can extrapolate meanings that aren't there.

So, back to what Jizya is - the facts aren't contradicted by Kennedy's quote and the reduction in taxation in Umayyad era is dealt with in the long quote I gave above. You seem to be reading a lot into the word 'generation' after- but haven't produced any evidence of any loss of tax revenue outside of the period covered in my quote.

I've set you a pretty simple challenge - show me any expert who disagrees with any of the facts below and give references (and who aren't just referring to the later aberrations in Egypt and India). Thus far you have quoted Kennedy who does not talk about jizya but mentions it in passing.

1. Jizya is a tax (some argued it was more than this)
2. It is a simple tax, payable by only able bodied and employed men, and is fixed amount per annum.
3. the tax ranges from 12 chickens a year, to 48 chickens a year (or 36g of silver to 144g of silver)
4. The tax is minimal in absolute terms - as poverty was defined as anyone who could not SAVE more than 17 chickens a month (so you the tax was less than 6% of savings - and as it was fixed, the more you earned, the lower the tax burden)
5. Muslims paid taxes which varied with wealth
6. Arnold (and others) have quoted the rates
7. The arithmetic (as well as the conclusions by Arnold et al) all show that the moderate Jizya was less than Muslim taxes (its a mathematical result of the rates and forms of taxation)
8. Some Christian tribes elected to serve in the military and were exempt from Jizya, some Muslims wanted to be exempt from military service and had to pay tax to compensate


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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 27, 2010
Do you now agree that non-Muslims, for the first 90 years after the initial conquests, paid more in taxes than Muslims?
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 27, 2010
Nope.

You really need to make up your mind eh - first you were arguing that the majority of non-Muslims were poor and would be 'crippled' by paying a tax of 12 chickens a year, now you're arguing that non-Muslims were landowners who paid higher land taxes than Muslims did.

And in any case, landowners will have to pay Zakaat if they are Muslim or just the jizya if they weren't (on top of the land tax). The maximum jizya was 48 chickens a year - whereas the Zakaat was 2.5% of the value of the wealth. Zakaat is clearly above jizya for landowning folk, so it is not clear that the differential between kharaj overturns this difference.

However, we seem now to be clear that for JIZYA - the facts stand - it was not a punitive tax, as you now seem to be obsessing over a differential in land taxes which, by definition, only affected those who owned land.

So, on Jizya:

I take it you haven't been able to find one expert that disagrees with the facts about Jizya, which is what this thread was about.

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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 28, 2010
Hey, that is Hugh Kennedy's conclusion - not mine. He argues that non-Muslims paid more in taxes than Muslims and that, as a result of non-Muslims converting to Islam, the state was losing tax revenue. I'll underline the important parts again:

...a new problem had emerged in the generation since 'Ali had died. Many of the local people, especially in the Kufa area, had been converted to Islam. While this was no doubt welcome in many ways, it did pose serious problems to the rulers. The real question was how far these new converts, usually referred to as mawali (clients of freedmen) of the Arab tribes, should be treated as first-class Muslims. While in theory all should be equal, objections were raised on two fronts. The non-Muslims paid a higher rate of tax on their landed property, the kharaj and a poll-tax on top of that, while the Arab Muslims simply paid the sadaqa. This meant that conversion would result in a substantial loss of income for the government. Naturally converts tended to be denied the fiscal benefits of their conversion and, equally naturally, they resented it.


Kennedy is clear that non-Muslims paid more in taxes than Muslims did. I've provided a respected historian who explicitly says such and you refuse to acknowledge the facts - preferring your 'calculations' over those of historians.

One must therefore choose who to believe - you, or people who know what they're talking about.

On a side note, Kennedy's book that I am reading is in its second edition. Not only is it peer reviewed by other academia, but if this was a mistake that other historians somehow missed before the book was published, other historians/readers would have caught this before the second edition.

The quote from Kennedy and wikipedia are both clear - for the first ninety years of the Arab occupation of non-Muslim lands, non-Muslims paid more in taxes than Muslims. Do you agree or will you be willing to supply a quote from a historian showing otherwise?
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 28, 2010
Sure, we can of course examine Kennedy's quote when we have finished discussing Jizya. We can look, in that new thread, at what the historical evidence is and also check to see whether the landed classes would pay more or less when comparing Jizya + land tax vs Zakaat + land tax.

But first, let us conclude with Jizya (as this is what the title of this thread is)

Let me know if you can find any expert who disputes the facts that have been uncovered in this thread (again, we agree that there are later aberrations - notably in Egypt and India):


1. Jizya is a tax (some argued it was more than this)
2. It is a simple tax, payable by only able bodied and employed men, and is fixed amount per annum.
3. the tax ranges from 12 chickens a year, to 48 chickens a year (or 36g of silver to 144g of silver)
4. The tax is minimal in absolute terms - as poverty was defined as anyone who could not SAVE more than 17 chickens a month (so you the tax was less than 6% of savings - and as it was fixed, the more you earned, the lower the tax burden)
5. Muslims paid taxes which varied with wealth
6. Arnold (and others) have quoted the rates
7. The arithmetic (as well as the conclusions by Arnold et al) all show that the moderate Jizya was less than Muslim taxes (its a mathematical result of the rates and forms of taxation)
8. Some Christian tribes elected to serve in the military and were exempt from Jizya, some Muslims wanted to be exempt from military service and had to pay tax to compensate


If there is no disagreement, we can start a new thread on general taxation.

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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 28, 2010
Well, actually that's not correct. This thread was started when I questioned your claim that non-Muslims paid less in taxes than Muslims.

If you go back to the original posts, you will see that I bring up the kharaj in the same post as I discuss jizya.

So, do you agree with the facts presented by Hugh Kennedy that non-Muslims paid more in taxes for the first ninety years of the Arab occupation of Christian and Zoroastrian lands?
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 28, 2010
This thread is about Jizya. The clue is in the title.

So let me repeat my question to you again, s l o w l y.

Have you found ANY expert who disagrees with the facts of Jizya listed in red above? (And descriptions of later aberrations in Egypt etc don't count)

If not, let's start a new thread to discuss general taxation. I'll let you dig out the references for that topic - fair?

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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 29, 2010
Let's just confirm that non-Muslims paid more in taxes than Muslims initially did.

Do you agree that non-Muslims paid more in taxes and their conversion to Islam - to pay less in taxes, was the driving force behind the Caliph's decision to 'change the rules' and have Muslims pay the same amount in Kharaj tax as non-Muslims?
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 30, 2010
Until we examine all the evidence for general taxation, I can't see how we can come to an informed decision either way. As I said, I'll let you start the new thread and dig out the evidence - I'll do the critiquing of your evidence.

This thread is about Jizya - once we agree on the facts (and we seem close, as you haven't produced any expert opinion that disagrees with the facts below - and only can cite the examples of later aberrations).

So, allow me to repeat myself:
shafique wrote:Let me know if you can find any expert who disputes the facts that have been uncovered in this thread (again, we agree that there are later aberrations - notably in Egypt and India):


1. Jizya is a tax (some argued it was more than this)
2. It is a simple tax, payable by only able bodied and employed men, and is fixed amount per annum.
3. the tax ranges from 12 chickens a year, to 48 chickens a year (or 36g of silver to 144g of silver)
4. The tax is minimal in absolute terms - as poverty was defined as anyone who could not SAVE more than 17 chickens a month (so you the tax was less than 6% of savings - and as it was fixed, the more you earned, the lower the tax burden)
5. Muslims paid taxes which varied with wealth
6. Arnold (and others) have quoted the rates
7. The arithmetic (as well as the conclusions by Arnold et al) all show that the moderate Jizya was less than Muslim taxes (its a mathematical result of the rates and forms of taxation)
8. Some Christian tribes elected to serve in the military and were exempt from Jizya, some Muslims wanted to be exempt from military service and had to pay tax to compensate


If there is no disagreement, we can start a new thread on general taxation.
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 30, 2010
Ok - but do you accept the fact that, initially, non-Muslims paid more in taxes than Muslims did?
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 31, 2010
No, this hasn't been shown. All you've shown so far is one reference that people who owned land may have been charged higher rates if they were non-Muslim. We've established that Jizya for rich people is much less than Zakat - and therefore I'd argue that landowners would be exactly the people who pay lower Jizya vs Zakaat (which is over and above and Kharaj, land tax). You will therefore have to show that the combination of Kharaj and Zakaat is lower than Kharaj and Jizya - and this only applies to the rich landed classes - the landless don't pay land tax (obviously).

You've also argued above that the rich don't mind paying taxes - or at least it is not a burden for them.

So, therefore I take it we agree on the facts about Jizya and you are now going to look up the references about land taxes.

Please let me know:
1. What were the rates of land tax
2. How many people (as a rough proportion) owned land
3. Compare Kharaj + Jizya with Kharaj + Zakaat, and show which is higher (we have established that for anyone with land as assets, Jizya will be less than Zakaat - 48 chickens a year vs 2.5% of value of land)


However, could you please provide these facts in another thread. I'll close this one as we don't have any disagreement over the facts of Jizya (as you have been unable to provide one expert who disagrees with the facts listed).

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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 31, 2010
All you've shown so far is one reference that people who owned land may have been charged higher rates if they were non-Muslim.


No, I didn't see any 'may' or 'probably' in the quote from Hugh Kennedy (ironic in light of your quote from that Jewish historian who says the Jews of Arabia may have believed this and could have done that).

He is categorical that non-Muslims paid more in taxes than Muslims did. Let me know when you have a historian who explicitly says that Muslims paid less in taxes than non-Muslims.
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 31, 2010
Good, no disagreement over the facts of Jizya.

I look forward to your new thread on the comparison of taxation between Muslims and nonMuslims, detailing why you think Muslims paid less taxes than nonMuslims (with actual worked out examples of the rates each paid). Please provide full references and show all workings.

Landed gentry would pay more taxes as Muslims, I contend - because the Zakaat will outweigh Jizya and any differential in Kharaj, but I have to admit I haven't looked up the rates and when they applied - I will leave that to you to provide refs and for me to verify.

We've established that jizya was a moderate capitation tax and it appears you are conceding that for people who did not own land, there is no question of nonMuslims paying more taxes than equivalent Muslims (as if you didn't own land, you wouldn't pay land tax)

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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 31, 2010
I have to side with Hugh Kennedy that non-Muslims paid significantly more in taxes than Muslims did.

I'm still patiently waiting for you to quote a single historian or author who explicitly says that non-Muslims paid less in taxes than Muslims.
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Feb 01, 2010
Sure. Kennedy says that land taxes were higher for non-Muslims initially. He does not say by how much - and it is a statement of the BLINDINGLY OBVIOUS that land taxes only apply to those who own land.

I'm therefore leaving it to you to show that the higher land taxes outweighed the higher Zakaat (in relation to Jizya) - by giving the actual rates of taxes and showing what proportion of the population owned land.

At the beginning of this thread you were arguing that the majority of people were poor and would be crippled by paying one chicken a month, now you seem to be 'wishing' that all the non-Muslims were rich land-owners. Please make up your mind.

In any case, let me re-paste the facts about Jizya and remind you that for the land tax debate, you should start a new thread and present the facts and figures there. Your 'wishes' or extrapolations of Kennedy's remarks about land taxes is pretty weak.

Let me know if you can find any expert who disputes the facts that have been uncovered in this thread (again, we agree that there are later aberrations - notably in Egypt and India):


1. Jizya is a tax (some argued it was more than this)
2. It is a simple tax, payable by only able bodied and employed men, and is fixed amount per annum.
3. the tax ranges from 12 chickens a year, to 48 chickens a year (or 36g of silver to 144g of silver)
4. The tax is minimal in absolute terms - as poverty was defined as anyone who could not SAVE more than 17 chickens a month (so you the tax was less than 6% of savings - and as it was fixed, the more you earned, the lower the tax burden)
5. Muslims paid taxes which varied with wealth
6. Arnold (and others) have quoted the rates
7. The arithmetic (as well as the conclusions by Arnold et al) all show that the moderate Jizya was less than Muslim taxes (its a mathematical result of the rates and forms of taxation)
8. Some Christian tribes elected to serve in the military and were exempt from Jizya, some Muslims wanted to be exempt from military service and had to pay tax to compensate
shafique
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Feb 01, 2010
Do you agree that non-Muslims who paid kharaj paid more taxes than Muslims who paid 'kharaj' or its equivalent for the first ninety years of the Muslim occupation of the middle east?
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Feb 01, 2010
No, I'm waiting to see the evidence that nonMuslim land owners paid higher rates of tax on the land than Muslim landowners. I've seen your quote from Kennedy - but he doesn't say by how much the taxes differed, how many people this affected (i.e. who owned land) and I haven't seen the calculations that show that Zakaat on the land was less than jizya.

But, that is exactly the evidence I've asked you to present. If it exists, then we can assess to what extent the landed gentry were better off as Muslims than as Non-Muslims. Please show what the differential rates were and let me look up the references for these rates.

So - present your evidence. Make your case.

But I'm glad we have concluded the discussion on Jizya.

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Shafique
shafique
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Feb 01, 2010
I believe Kennedy says the difference was pretty significant. But this is pretty entertaining - I've quoted a historian who *explicitly* said that non-Muslims paid more in kharaj than Muslims, but you are dismissing what a historian has said.

Pray tell, do you have a historian who actually sides with your quaint belief, or is this another episode of 'shafique knows more than the experts'?
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Feb 01, 2010
So, what were the rates then? How many people owned land?

Please give me the references so I can look them up.

Cheers,
Shafique
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Feb 01, 2010
Look it up? How would you look anything up when you don't even know that the Muslims initially primarily taxed certain groups of people. I'd rather side with the conclusions of the historians than what shafique concludes based off of his google trawling.
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Feb 01, 2010
Oh, so you want me to do your work for you?

No thanks. I did the work in this thread on Jizya, you do the work now on the land tax rates. Either back up your allegations, or admit you don't know.

All mouth, no trousers - again.

But hey, at least there's no disagreement on Jizya now - your initial view has been proven wrong on the subject (jizya, is in fact a moderate tax - not a punitive measure against poor non-Muslims).

I look forward to your references and evidence regarding whether rich land-owners paid more land tax than Zakaat plus land tax.

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Shafique
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Feb 02, 2010
No thanks. I did the work in this thread on Jizya, you do the work now on the land tax rates. Either back up your allegations, or admit you don't know.


More contradictory reasoning, I see.

You can't back up Newby's allegations, but you want me to back up what Kennedy *explicitly* said.

I've already linked to the wikipedia article on kharaj. Go trawl around there and check out the sources that were cited.

All mouth, no trousers - again.


What part of Kennedy's quote is confusing you?

But hey, at least there's no disagreement on Jizya now - your initial view has been proven wrong on the subject (jizya, is in fact a moderate tax - not a punitive measure against poor non-Muslims).


strawman.

I look forward to your references and evidence regarding whether rich land-owners paid more land tax than Zakaat plus land tax.


Ok - the first reference comes from Hugh Kennedy. I refer you to the previous page(s) where the quote was provided.

QED.
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