Dear sheikh,
Another epic failure of comprehension.
My question was quite clear - it was about Matthew saying PILATE (let me repeat PILATE) not being to blame. He is categoric about this. Pilate says he is not guilty.
The question was, whether your Bible contains this categoric statement of Matthew and whether you disown this message and blame Pilate. It is clear that Matthew blames the Jews and their progeny - for he records what they say. We can quibble over whether it was the Jews present or Jews generally, but the question was pretty clear - do you agree with Matthew when he absolves PILATE (yes, PILATE - P I L A T E) of the blame.
That's PILATE, in case you missed it.
Why avoid this question, sheikh?
Cheers,
Shafique