Why did you change the word 'Romans' to 'inhabitants'?
You're right, my mistake. I was reading an archeological report on Caesarea and had copy/pasted what I had typed somewhere else here.
Balhaduri's figures for those captured doesn't corroborate the supposed massacre - if anything it goes to show that there wasn't a massacre
So, because some historian supposedly did not mention a massacre (just the enslavement), that does not mean a massacre took place?
I remember when discussing the Muslim massacre of thirty unarmed Jewish diplomats, you were pretty adamant that your version of events from a historian, that the Jews were armed and actually ambushed the Muslims, did not contradict the earliest Muslim accounts of the massacre.
Hey, try to at least remain consistent.
so killing of 7,000 Romans (as opposed to Palestinians)
First of all, Romans, just as Greeks, meant a people and not soldiers, necessarily. I have no idea how you arrived at the belief that the use of the word Roman would mean soldiers and not inhabitants. This is another of your misinformed opinions, such as claiming that Hugh Kennedy was mistaken, that you are trumpeting as a fact.
doesn't sound like a massacre, nor does the taking captive of 4000 out of the 100,000 population
Killing 7,000 people (seven percent of a population) and enslaving another 4,000 people does not sound like a massacre to you?
So, perhaps you need to re-visit your references or sources of references?
Hey, you're the one who quoted a pseudo Muslim author claiming that the Jews had attacked their Muslims escort.
When it was shown that none of the early accounts said the Jews were the ones to attack the Muslims and modern historians have concluded that the Muslims set upon the Jews, you were the one to continue to maintain that there was no contradiction between the early accounts and what your author claimed.
So, why the sudden inconsistency?