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As I have offered to clarify eh's question on the meaning of yaqattalu in the Quran when eh responds to his outstanding questions (only fair I think), I thought it best to have his questions answered in a separate thread - hence this one.

The question is a simple one - in the instances listed, why does he take some Biblical verses literally (eg Talking donkeys existed) and others he says the Bible is wrong (Jews are responsible for killing Jesus as the Gospel says)?

List of the confusion over Biblical verses are many and listed here (with links to the threads where he expresses his confused interpretations):

philosophy-dubai/biblical-confusion-t47353.html

Cheers,
Shafique